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Quiz: SonoPath Summit Lecture Series; Cardiology (20-1095138)
Quiz: SonoPath Summit Lecture Series; Cardiology (20-1095138)
20-1095138
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*Technicians please put N/A
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V
VT
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(Use the following profession codes for this board: Veterinarian=V; Veterinarian Technician=VT) SELECT FROM DROPDOWN!
Quiz
Radiographic Findings of Heart Disease – How the Cardiologist Evaluates Films
1. Right ventricular enlargement on a ventrodorsal radiograph results in what radiographic sign?
(Required)
a. Enlargement from 6 o’clock to 9 o’clock
b. A bulge on midline at the cranial aspect of the cardiac silhouette
c. The ‘backpack’ sign
d. The reverse ‘D’ sign
2. Which radiographic measurement is more specific to left heart enlargement than the vertebral heart score?
(Required)
a. The cardiac ratio
b. The aortic to atrial quotient
c. The vertebral left atrial size
d. The length of sternal contact
3. Which of the following regarding the vertebral heart score (VHS) is CORRECT?
(Required)
a. All breeds have roughly the same normal reference range for VHS
b. The VHS is normalized to the vertebral bodies beginning at the 4th thoracic vertebra
c. Normal values for dogs are less than 8 vertebral bodies
d. Hemivertebrae in brachycephalic dogs do not impact the measured VHS
4. The hallmark features of left-sided congestive heart failure in the dog are…?
(Required)
a. Left atrial enlargement, pulmonary arterial dilation, interstitial to alveolar infiltrates
b. Left atrial enlargement, pulmonary venous dilation, interstitial to alveolar infiltrates
c. Left atrial enlargement, pulmonary arterial dilation, increased bronchial markings
d. Left atrial enlargement, pulmonary venous dilation, increased bronchial markings
5. Which of the following are differential diagnoses for a nodular lung pattern?
(Required)
a. Tumor
b. Abscess
c. Granuloma
d. All of the above
Chronic Cough in the Dog: Diagnostic Algorithm for a Common Complaint
1. Most of the cough receptors in the dog are located where?
(Required)
a. Larynx and large airways
b. Bronchioles
c. Alveoli
d. Lung interstitium
2. Which two laryngeal conditions are frequently associated with cough in dogs?
(Required)
a. Laryngeal polyps and fungal infections
b. Trauma and salivary mucocele
c. Laryngeal paralysis and gastroesophageal reflux
d. Laryngomalacia and masticatory myositis
3. Which phase of breathing and location of airway collapse are correctly matched?
(Required)
a. During exhalation, collapse is more likely in the intrathoracic airways
b. During inhalation, collapse is more likely in the intrathoracic airways
c. During exhalation, collapse is more likely in the extrathoracic airways
d. Dogs with tracheal collapse typically have fixed collapse throughout respiration
4. The definitive test for the diagnosis of chronic bronchiHs in dogs is what?
(Required)
a. Complete blood count
b. Thoracic radiographs
c. Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage
d. Lung aspiration
5. Which treatment is most effective for cough suppression in dogs?
(Required)
a. Furosemide
b. Guaifenesin
c. Dextromethorphan
d. Hydrocodone
Spectrum of Canine Heart Disease
1. The most common form of heart disease in dogs is what?
(Required)
a. Degenerative mitral valve disease
b. Dilated cardiomyopathy
c. Congenital heart disease
d. Pericardial disease
2. The phenotype of dilated cardiomyopathy may develop in dogs secondary to which of the following underlying etiologies?
(Required)
a. Familial/genetic causes
b. Myocarditis
c. Nutritional
d. All of the above
3. Which heart disease is commonly diagnosed in dogs of Boxer or Bulldog ancestry?
(Required)
a. Patent ductus arteriosus
b. Cardiac lymphoma
c. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
d. Idiopathic pericardial effusion
4. What 3 forms of congenital heart disease are the most prevalent in dogs?
(Required)
a. Tetralogy of Fallot, Atrial Septal Defect, Patent Ductus Arteriosus
b. Pulmonary Valve Stenosis, Subaortic Stenosis, Patent Ductus Arteriosus
c. Atrial Septal Defect, Pulmonary Valve Stenosis, Subaortic Stenosis
d. Subaortic Stenosis, Patent Ductus Arteriosus, Tetralogy of Fallot
5. The test of choice to diagnose pericardial effusion in the dog is what?
(Required)
a. Radiographs
b. Electrocardiogram
c. Ultrasound
d. Auscultation
Heartworm Disease: Diagnosis and Treatment
1. The heartworm antigen test detects what substance?
(Required)
a. Protein from the female heartworm
b. Protein from the male heartworm
c. Wolbachia species, an intracellular bacteria that lives in the worm
d. Saliva of the adult heartworm
2. The microfilariae of heartworm represent what stage of the heartworm lifecycle?
(Required)
a. Young adult
b. Mature adult
c. Early larval stage
d. Juvenile
3. Steroids are often prescribed to dogs with heartworm infection to treat what condition?
(Required)
a. Pneumonitis and cough
b. Caval syndrome
c. Pulmonary hypertension
d. Right-sided congestive heart failure
4. Which of the following factors have likely contributed to increased heartworm prevalence?
(Required)
a. Urban environments that act as heat islands
b. Increased irrigation
c. Relocation of rescue/foster dogs
d. All of the above
5. Why is doxycycline used in the treatment of heartworm infection?
(Required)
a. Secondary bacterial pneumonia
b. Treats Wolbachia which lessens adverse adulticide reaction
c. Limits proteinuria secondary to antigen-antibody complexes
d. Provides sedation to limit activity aGer adulticide therapy
Systemic Hypertension – Causes and Treatments
1. What are the target organs that are damaged by systemic hypertension?
(Required)
a. Eyes, Brain, Liver, Heart
b. Liver, Brain, Kidney, Heart
c. Eyes, Liver, Kidney, Heart
d. Eyes, Brain, Kidney, Heart
2. What factors have been shown to increased measured blood pressure in cats?
(Required)
a. Age
b. Stress level
c. Kidney disease
d. All of the above
3. Disease of which organ is often associated with systemic hypertension?
(Required)
a. Heart
b. Adrenal gland
c. Stomach
d. Lungs
4. Treatment of systemic hypertension should occur in what clinical situation?
(Required)
a. A single elevated blood pressure recording in a stressed animal
b. Any animal with kidney disease, regardless of whether or not the blood pressure is elevated
c. Animals with evidence of retinal hemorrhage or neurologic signs and a documented high blood pressure
d. Animals on thyroid supplementation
5. Chronic oral therapy for systemic hypertension most often includes what drug?
(Required)
a. Amlodipine
b. Amiodarone
c. Furosemide
d. Diltiazem
Staging of Heart Disease in Dogs
1. Which stage of heart disease is defined by the presence of congestive heart failure (either current or previously diagnosed)?
(Required)
a. Stage A
b. Stage B1
c. Stage B2
d. Stage C
2. The vertebral heart score (VHS) normalizes heart dimensions to which anatomic structure?
(Required)
a. The trachea
b. The thoracic vertebral bodies
c. The ribs
d. The sternebrae
3. Establishing a diagnosis of stage B2 mitral valve disease is currently based on measures of what two chambers?
(Required)
a. Left atrium and right atrium
b. Left atrium and left ventricle
c. Right atrium and right ventricle
d. Right atrium and left ventricle
4. The EPIC trial found that treatment with which drug prolonged the time to heart failure and overall survival in dogs with stage B2 mitral valve disease?
(Required)
a. Enalapril
b. Furosemide
c. Pimobendan
d. Benazepril
5. What diagnostic test is the gold standard to diagnose left-sided congestive heart failure in dogs?
(Required)
a. Echocardiography
b. Thoracic radiographs
c. Electrocardiogram
d. 24-hour Holter monitor
Evidence-Based Therapies of Heart Disease in Dogs
1. What drug treatment is recommended for dogs with stage B1 mitral valve disease?
(Required)
a. Pimobendan
b. Furosemide
c. Enalapril
d. No therapy
2. What drug regimen is recommended for the treatment of stage B2 dilated cardiomyopathy?
(Required)
a. Enalapril and pimobendan
b. Furosemide, spironolactone, and enalapril
c. Furosemide, spironolactone, pimobendan, and enalapril
d. No therapy
3. What drug regimen is recommended for the treatment of congestive heart failure in dogs?
(Required)
a. Furosemide, enalapril, spironolactone, pimobendan
b. Furosemide, enalapril, spironolactone
c. Furosemide and enalapril
d. Furosemide
4. What dietary recommendation is advisable for dogs in congestive heart failure?
(Required)
a. Supplement potassium
b. Restrict excess potassium in the food
c. Supplement sodium
d. Restrict excess sodium in the food
5. What is the definitive method to treat mitral valve regurgitation?
(Required)
a. Drug therapy to limit clinical signs
b. Nutritional therapy
c. Surgical or catheter-based therapies to stop the leak
d. Control of systemic hypertension
Is this cat a cardiac patient? A European pragmatic and practical approach
1. Radiographs are a useful tool to rule out cardiac disease in cats
(Required)
a. True
b. False
2. A heart murmur in a cat is always associated with advanced cardiac disease
(Required)
a. True
b. False
3. A positive bedside NT-proBNP (Snap Feline proBNP-Test) proves the presence of left sided congestive heart failure
(Required)
a. True
b. False
4. The louder the heart murmur the more advanced the cardiomyopathy. Is this true in cats?
(Required)
a. True
b. False
5. Cats in congestive heart failure are always tachycardic.
(Required)
a. True
b. False
Feline Cardiomyopathies: To pill or not to pill – What's the evidence?
1. Current established guidelines for treatment of feline cardiomyopathies are all based on the highest level of evidence (Level I )
(Required)
a. True
b. False
2. There are a lot of randomized, controlled prospective studies supporting the use of calcium channel blockers in cats
(Required)
a. True
b. False
3. Treatment decisions for individual cats shall also incorporate the character and life circumstances of the individual as well as the compliance and abilities of the owners
(Required)
a. True
b. False
4. It has been clearly shown that chronic treatment of HCM with Pimobendan prolongs life and improves quality of life in affected cats
(Required)
a. True
b. False
5. ACE-Inhibitors are particularly effective in early stages of HCM in cats.
(Required)
a. True
b. False
The different faces of DCM – Suspicion, Diagnosis and Staging Recommendations
1. Dilated Cardiomyopathy is always genetic
(Required)
a. True
b. False
2. Dilated Cardiomyopathy is similar in terms of presentation, progression and diagnostic findings across all breeds
(Required)
a. True
b. False
3. It has been clearly shown that Hypothyroidism is the main cause of Doberman Cardiomyopathy
(Required)
a. True
b. False
4. Taurine deficiency is a typical cause of DCM in Chihuahuas
(Required)
a. True
b. False
5. Holter-ECG is a valuable screening tool for DCM in Doberman Pinschers
(Required)
a. True
b. False
Weakness and syncope: The heart or not the heart?
1. Heart rate is linearly correlated with cardiac output
(Required)
a. True
b. False
2. Supraventricular tachycardia can cause significant weakness
(Required)
a. True
b. False
3. Severe pulmonic stenosis can cause syncope in dogs
(Required)
a. True
b. False
4. Severe subaortic stenosis can never cause syncope in dogs
(Required)
a. True
b. False
5. Sick Sinus Syndrome is an important differential diagnosis in Terrier breeds with Syncope
(Required)
a. True
b. False
Right heart disease in dogs: Congenital and acquired
1. Right heart hypertrophy usually causes a tall R-wave on the EKG
(Required)
a. True
b. False
2. Congestive right heart failure is characterized by fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity (ascites)
(Required)
a. True
b. False
3. Tricuspid dysplasia is frequently seen in small dog breeds
(Required)
a. True
b. False
4. Pulmonic stenosis can cause right ventricular concentric hypertrophy (thickening)
(Required)
a. True
b. False
5. ARVC is a disease that is mostly seen in Boxer dogs
(Required)
a. True
b. False
Is there a B2 + stage for MMVD? European Perspective
1. Chest radiographs can unequivocally distinguish between the presence and the absence of left sided congestive heart failure
(Required)
a. True
b. False
2. A sleeping/resting respiratory rate of <30/min rules out congestive heart failure in all breeds and sizes of dogs
(Required)
a. True
b. False
3. Exercise intolerance is a reliable indicator for the presence of congestive heart failure in dogs
(Required)
a. True
b. False
4. It has been clearly shown that low-dose diuretic treatment in dogs suffering from advanced degenerative mitral valve disease will shorten their life expectancy
(Required)
a. True
b. False
5. The aim of medical treatment is to maintain quality of life, to prevent from suffering and – by all means – not to harm the patient
(Required)
a. True
b. False
What is the evidence for treatment of MMVD? (review of literature, treatment plan at each stage) European Approach
1. The stages B1 and B2 (degenerative mitral valve disease) are distinguished by
(Required)
a. The presence of left atrial enlargement only
b. The presence of left ventricular enlargement only
c. The presence of both left atrial and ventricular enlargement sufficient to justify treatment
2. There’s a huge benefit for treatment of B2 DMVD dogs with ACE-Inhibitors and this is based on a high level of evidence
(Required)
a. True
b. False
3. A benefit of therapy with Pimobendan in stage B2 dogs is based on a high level of evidence
(Required)
a. True
b. False
4. The detection of cardiac enlargement by echocardiography is more reliable than based on chest radiographs alone
(Required)
a. True
b. False
5. The use of ACEI-Inhibitors + Spironolactone additionally to Pimobendan and diuretics in the management of chronic heart failure caused by DMVD makes sense
(Required)
a. True
b. False
Classification and Treatment of Pulmonary Hypertension
1. What hemodynamic variables impact pulmonary arterial pressure?
(Required)
a. Pulmonary blood flow
b. Pulmonary vascular resistance
c. Left atrial pressure
d. All of the above
2. Which of the following echocardiographic finding supports a high probability of pulmonary hypertension?
(Required)
a. Small pulmonary trunk
b. Thin-walled right ventricle
c. Dilated right atrium and caudal vena cava
d. Low velocity tricuspid valve regurgitation
3. What is the preferred treatment for group 2 pulmonary hypertension (secondary to leG heart disease)?
(Required)
a. Anti-coagulaHon
b. Home oxygen therapy
c. High dose sildenafil
d. Diuretics, pimobendan, and management of the leG heart disease
4. What is the drug of choice for pulmonary hypertension not associated with left heart disease?
(Required)
a. Sildenafil
b. Amlodipine
c. Furosemide
d. Enalapril
5. A tricuspid regurgitation velocity of 5m/s suggests what value for the right ventricle to right atrial pressure gradient?
(Required)
a. 36 mmHg
b. 64 mmHg
c. 100 mmHg
d. 144 mmHg
Three-Dimensional Cardiac Imaging to Understand Anatomy
1. Why is three-dimensional imaging of the heart advantageous compared to two-dimensional ultrasound?
(Required)
a. Any imaging plane can be recreated from the dataset
b. Volume-rendered images create images comparable to open surgery
c. Precise measurements can be obtained orthogonal to the desired structure
d. All of the above
2. Imaging of the coronary artery circulation is optimal with what imaging modality?
(Required)
a. Transthoracic echocardiography
b. Thoracic radiographs
c. Cardiac CT
d. Electrocardiography
3. How does transesophageal echocardiography differ from transthoracic echocardiography?
(Required)
a. Transesophageal echocardiography requires a different type of imaging probe
b. Transesophageal echocardiography requires general anesthesia
c. Transesophageal echocardiography results in different probe manipulations
d. All of the above
4. What is an advantage of using CT to visualize the pulmonary vessels over echocardiography?
(Required)
a. CT can estimate pulmonary artery pressures
b. CT is not limited by acoustic windows and can visualize the full vascular tree
c. CT is more cost effective in most practices
d. CT has no radiation exposure to the patient
5. Transesophageal echocardiography can help guide treatment for which interventional therapies?
(Required)
a. Occlusion of patent ductus arteriosus
b. Dilation of pulmonary valve stenosis
c. Transcatheter edge-to-edge mitral valve repair
d. All of the above
European Cardiology Zebra Diagnoses – Multimodality Diagnostics (Peter)
1. Congenital heart disease can appear in various combinations
(Required)
a. True
b. False
2. In some cases, multimodality imaging provides additional valuable information
(Required)
a. True
b. False
3. If the clinical picture does not match the standard diagnostic findings, further workup is required
(Required)
a. True
b. False
4. EKG-gated CT is particularly useful for the detection of coronary anomalies in dogs
(Required)
a. True
b. False
5. A thorough understanding of pathophysiology is required in order to understand complex congenital heart diseases and to take the right decisions in terms of treatment
(Required)
a. True
b. False
Round Table Q & A
1. Pericardial effusion can occur in mitral cases. What are potential causes?
(Required)
1. Acute chordae rupture
2. Left atrial tear
3. Occult neoplasia
4. All of the above
2. The theory behind not starting acei immediately in left sided congested heart failure and initiating with Lasix, spironolactone and pimobendan is concern for which of the following?
(Required)
1.Variability in blood pressure accuracy
2. Too many initial drugs for owner compliance
3. Concern for renal function
4. Ability to stepwise assess response to initial therapy
5. All of the above
3. True or false? Mitral inflow E wave evaluation can be helpful in B2+/Early stage C cases to consider more aggressive therapy and help ascertain if left sided heart failure is eminent.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
4. True or false? Telemedicine based recommendations can often more conservative regarding treatment recommendations owing to the lack of the specialist direct conversations with the pet owner in the case management.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
5. When do the panel cardiologists typically recheck echocardiograms in clinically stable patients?
(Required)
1. 3 months
2. 1 month
3. 12 months
4. 6-9 months
6. True or False? NT-ProBNP is a function of myocardial stretch.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
7. True or false? BNP has a high level of false + but low level of false negatives and should be utilized on patient selection criteria based on risk factors.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
8. BNP elevations can be cardiac in origin or owing to systemic disease. Which of the following are potential causes of BNP elevations?
(Required)
1. False + results
2. Renal failure
3. Systemic hypertension
4. Pulmonary hypertension
5. Hyperthyroidism
6. Being a Labrador Retriever
7. All of the above
9. True or False? Treatment of non-clinical obstructive compensated feline HCM with beta blockers is well supported in the literature
(Required)
1. True
2. False
10. True or False? Exertional chest pain/angina in cats is likely underrecognized in obstructive HCM cats.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
11. Coronary obstruction by myocardial bridging may be an underlying clinical cause in obstructive HCM cats.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
12. True or False? Atenolol trial may be appropriate in some cats and treatment success may be evaluated by patient activity and wellness assessment post therapy.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
13. True or False? Panting in a cat is likely a cause of obstructive HCM in cats.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
14. True or False? Left ventricular hypertrophy is indicative of HCM
(Required)
1. True
2. False
15. True or False? Obstructive HCM in adolescent dogs without aortic stenosis (SAS) may be temporary and potentially improve or resolve once reaching maturity.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
16. Sleeping respiratory rate is more clinically important in cardiac failure cases when
(Required)
1. SRR is 27 1-month prior to visit and 27 at current exam
2. SRR is 18 1-month prior to visit and 27 at current exam
17. Treatment options for end stage heart failure after pimobendan, ace inhibitors, furosemide and +/- spironolactone have been implemented when left-sided heart failure is decompensating include:
(Required)
1. Torsemide
2. Injectable Lasix
3. TID lasix up to 10 mg/kg
4. All of the above
18. Subaortic stenosis cases that are severe (> 4.5 m/sec LVOT velocity) may find some benefit (debatable) with the following treatment more than other interventions according to the panel
(Required)
1. Balloon valvuloplasty
2. Beta blockade
3. Open cardiac surgery
4. Ace inhibitor
19. Aortopulmonary shunt or other intervention is available for Tetralogy of Fallot and should be considered when all of the following are present except:
(Required)
1. Clinical cyanosis
2. Elevated HCT
3. Normal HCT
4. Syncope
20. True or False? Tetralogy of Fallot that has a concurrent PDA can occur and can be beneficial as a compensatory mechanism for the patient.
(Required)
1. True
2. False
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